These questions are inspired by the following the paper http://www.soton.ac.uk/~stefano/courses/PHYS2006/chapter7.pdf on 'Normal Modes of a Beaded String'.
Problem Statement
Given a recurrence relation of $-\omega^2A_p=\omega_0^2(A_{p+1}-2A_p+A_{p-1})$ for the displacement amplitude of vibration of the $i^{th}$ bead at frequency $\omega$, we aim to find an expression for the $n^{th}$ mode frequency.
Solution (Taken from the paper)
Suppose that we have already found a mode for the string. If we shift the string, by translational invariance it will be the same. Therefore, if $A_n$ gives a frequency mode $\omega$, the shifted $A_n'$ also gives a frequency mode of $\omega$. We then have that $$A_n'=A_{n+1}$$ Now let’s look for a translation invariant mode, which reproduces itself when we do the shift. Since a mode is arbitrary up to an overall scale, this means $$A_n'=A_{n+1}=hA_n$$ for some constant h, so that the new amplitudes are proportional to the old ones. Applying this relation repeatedly gives $$A_n=h^nA_0$$ After substituting into the initial recurrence relation we have $$-\omega^2h^nA_0=\omega_0^2(h^{n-1}A_{0}-2h^nA_0+h^{n+1}A_{0})$$ $$\omega^2=\omega_0^2\left(2-h-\frac{1}{h}\right) \ \ \ \ (\star)$$
This shows that $h$ and $\frac{1}{h}$ give the same normal mode frequency. Conversely, if the frequency $\omega$ is fixed, the amplitudes $A_n$ must be an arbitrary linear combination of the amplitudes for $h$ and $\frac{1}{h}$ $$A_n=\alpha h^n+\beta h^{-n}$$ Letting $h=e^{i\theta}$ we have $$\omega^2=4\omega_0^2\sin^2(\frac{\theta}{2})$$ My Issues
(1) Since a mode is arbitrary up to an overall scale, this means $A_n'=A_{n+1}=hA_n$. I am not sure what the intuition behind this step actually is? If you shift the beads to left by one why must we scale the amplitude accordingly?
(2)How does $(\star)$ show that $h$ and $\frac{1}{h}$ give the same normal frequency and what does it even mean to say this?
(3)Why does fixing the frequency $\omega$ mean that the amplitudes must be a linear combination of $h$?