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In a non-ideal pulley (with friction at axle to be negligible) the tension on both side of rope is not equal because friction is present between rope and pulley, but when we write torque on the pulley then we only write:

$$ T_1R - T_2R= I\alpha $$

where $T_1$, $T_2$ are tension on either side of rope hanging on the pulley and $I$, $\alpha$ are moment of inertia of pulley and angular acceleration of pulley respectively. why we are not including torque due to fiction in the equation.

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    $\begingroup$ Yes, but what is your question? What do you want to know? Why the friction between the rope and pulley is not included in the equation? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 31 at 5:12
  • $\begingroup$ My question is why we are not including torque due to friction in the equation $\endgroup$
    – abc
    Commented Mar 31 at 6:50
  • $\begingroup$ The torque due to friction is $(T_1-T_2)R$. The friction transmits the tension in the strings to the pulley so the frictional force and the difference in tensions are the same. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 31 at 6:59
  • $\begingroup$ Check if I am getting you correctly ? you are saying that only frictional force is acting on the pulley, since frictional force is T1 -T2 so torque due to frictional force is (T1-T2)*R . $\endgroup$
    – abc
    Commented Mar 31 at 7:11
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, exactly :-) $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 31 at 7:13

1 Answer 1

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yeah

The friction force acting on the rope by the pulley is the force that is responsible for the "Tension Difference" and we can write $$\tau = \int_0^\pi R \cdot df = (T'-T)\cdot R = I\alpha$$

We are indeed including the torque due to friction, which is the only torque acting on the pulley.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the help. $\endgroup$
    – abc
    Commented Mar 31 at 7:32

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